Libofsha, if Greeks did not exist in the middle Ages then how is it the Greeks who fled Byzantium when it fell brought Greek thought to Italy to create the Renaissance? They taught the Italians how to read and right Greek, the Italians did not teach themselves.''
We are still the same people and the various population exchanges which occurred in Greece in the past 100 years just reaffirms our position. The majority of the Slavs(Bulgarians), Albanians and Turks left and in their place Greeks from outside of Greece filled their void. The Pontians and Anatolian Greeks were just returning to where there ancestors originated.
Do you think the Albanians are pure then, if you consider the rest of the Balkans as a purely mixed people?
Greeks .......Byzantium ....coming back from Romanoi to Greek is a big joke....
1-National identities were invented by the theoretical thinkers of the western Renaissance, and mainly used after the French Revolution to combat theocracy and feudalism, systems which characterized the social structure of the various empires. Concepts such as multinational state with “Greek” ethnic consciousness were and are a stark contradiction
2-According to the early Christian sacred scritpures, Paul (Saul of Tarsus; New Testament), Romans 15:19.), preached his newly founded Christian religion in Durrachium (Albanoi). The cities of Shkoder (Scodra), Vlore (Aulon, Avlonya) and Preveza (Nicopolis), became dioceses of the first Christian bishops of Illyricum
3-Many languages and dialects were spoken within the empire and Alexandria in Egypt was already the cultural center of the Empire in about 281 BC. Ptolemy II (309 BC-246 BC) wanted an universal language to be used only for diplomatic , literature, science and religious purposes. Thus he assigned Aristeas, an Athenian scholar, to create the grammar of the new language for this kind of needs of the Empire! Aristeas (and the scholars who were assisting him) used the Attic dialect (which was used in Athens) as basis for the new language eliminating the Attic idiosyncrasies. The Spartan Doric, however, was excluded from it. So, this new standardized Hellenic language, (called Koine or Common) was very different from the spoken one at that point that some scholars call it New Artificial Language. Simple people in those times don’t spoke this new invented language, but they spoke a different language with diffrent dialects!
4-The Byzantines had no tradition of actively propagating their “own culture” or of actively combating foreign people or foreign elements in their society, simply because they were a mix of different foreign people and cultures. In the Christian part of Europe the only men and sometimes women taught to read and write were monks, nuns and bishops. Many kings and dukes were able only to sign their names on charters, and at the end of 14-th century ability to read the Bible was restricted exclusively to the tonsured clerical orders and scholares. Most Christianized Europeans were serfs, poor craftsmen and plebeians. In 1400, more than ninety-nine percent of the Christian population of Europe was illiterate.
5-Is false and inaccurate to call the Byzantine Empire a “Greek Empire”, when in fact it was an commonwealth of religions, ethnicities etc and were the non-“hellens” who gave the greatest contribution in its progress!
6-John A. Petropulos, a professor of history in Amherst College (Byzantine and Modern Greek Studies Vol.2, 1976, pp. 135-160.): “Venizelos wanted the population exchange for both domestic and international reasons. Furthermore, his reasons for supporting the exchange derived from the needs of the Greek state rather than the needs of the refugees. In particular, these were “the national security and internal development of the Greek state”.” (p. 144) Venizelos ‘used the refugee problem to secure foreign economic assistance for what become a major economic programme.’ (p. 150) He discusses how the Greek state ‘invoked’ the refugee problem successfully to obtain highly concessional international loans. He also adds that this environment of ‘upheaval’ enabled a radical land reform program.”
How can “Greece” declared itself homogenous consisting of “100% pure Greeks”?
Last Edit: Jul 6, 2008 18:00:17 GMT -5 by atlantis